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Question 1 Report
A poultry farmer keeps 500 layers in a free-range system. Over a two-week period the farmer records the number of birds showing respiratory symptoms each day.
(a) The diagram shows the respiratory system of a chicken with structures labelled P, Q and R.
(i) Name the structures P, Q and R. [3]
(ii) Explain how Newcastle disease affects the respiratory system of poultry. [3]
(b) Describe how Newcastle disease spreads between birds on a farm. [3]
(c) The farmer wants to protect the remaining healthy birds.
(i) Suggest a vaccination programme the farmer should follow to prevent future outbreaks of Newcastle disease. [3]
(ii) Explain three biosecurity measures, apart from vaccination, that would reduce the risk of disease entering the poultry unit. [3]
Labelled answer diagram:
(a)(i) The structures labelled in the diagram of the chicken respiratory system:
(a)(ii) How Newcastle disease affects the respiratory system (3 marks):
(b) How Newcastle disease spreads between birds (3 marks):
(c)(i) A suitable vaccination programme for Newcastle disease (3 marks):
(c)(ii) Three biosecurity measures apart from vaccination (any three for [3]):
Also acceptable: netting open sides to exclude wild birds; cleaning and disinfecting feeders, drinkers and equipment regularly.
Labelled answer diagram:
(a)(i) The structures labelled in the diagram of the chicken respiratory system:
(a)(ii) How Newcastle disease affects the respiratory system (3 marks):
(b) How Newcastle disease spreads between birds (3 marks):
(c)(i) A suitable vaccination programme for Newcastle disease (3 marks):
(c)(ii) Three biosecurity measures apart from vaccination (any three for [3]):
Also acceptable: netting open sides to exclude wild birds; cleaning and disinfecting feeders, drinkers and equipment regularly.
Question 2 Report
| Crop | Water requirement (mm per season) | Cost of irrigation per hectare ($) |
|---|---|---|
| Tomatoes | 620 | 185 |
| Cabbage | 440 | 130 |
| Onions | 510 | 155 |
(a) Table 1.1 shows the water requirements and irrigation costs for three vegetable crops grown on the same farm.
Table 1.1
(i) State which crop has the highest water requirement. [1]
(ii) Calculate the cost of irrigating 5 hectares of tomatoes for the full growing season. Show your working. [2]
(b) The farmer currently uses furrow irrigation but is considering switching to drip irrigation.
(i) Describe how furrow irrigation works. [2]
(ii) Suggest two advantages of drip irrigation over furrow irrigation for vegetable production. [2]
(c) Explain why over-irrigation can lead to soil salination in semi-arid regions. [2]
(a)(i) From the table, tomatoes have the highest water requirement at 620 mm per season. [1]
(a)(ii) The cost of irrigating 5 hectares of tomatoes:
\[ \text{Total cost} = \text{cost per hectare} \times \text{number of hectares} = \$185 \times 5 = \$925 \] [2]
(b)(i) In furrow irrigation, water is released at the top of a gently sloping field and flows by gravity along shallow furrows (trenches) dug between the crop rows. [1] As the water moves along each furrow it soaks laterally (sideways) through the soil into the raised ridges or beds where the crop roots are growing. [1]
(b)(ii) Two advantages of drip irrigation over furrow irrigation for vegetable production:
(c) Over-irrigation in semi-arid regions causes soil salination through a two-step process:
(a)(i) From the table, tomatoes have the highest water requirement at 620 mm per season. [1]
(a)(ii) The cost of irrigating 5 hectares of tomatoes:
\[ \text{Total cost} = \text{cost per hectare} \times \text{number of hectares} = \$185 \times 5 = \$925 \] [2]
(b)(i) In furrow irrigation, water is released at the top of a gently sloping field and flows by gravity along shallow furrows (trenches) dug between the crop rows. [1] As the water moves along each furrow it soaks laterally (sideways) through the soil into the raised ridges or beds where the crop roots are growing. [1]
(b)(ii) Two advantages of drip irrigation over furrow irrigation for vegetable production:
(c) Over-irrigation in semi-arid regions causes soil salination through a two-step process:
Question 3 Report
(a) Fig. 1.1 shows the longitudinal section of a flower.
Fig. 1.1
(i) Name the structures labelled X, Y and Z on Fig. 1.1. [3]
(ii) State the function of structure Y. [1]
(b) Explain how pollination differs from fertilisation in flowering plants. [3]
(c) Describe two features of a wind-pollinated flower that differ from an insect-pollinated flower. [2]
[Total: 9]
Labelled answer diagram:
(a)(i) The structures labelled on the longitudinal section of the flower: [3]
(a)(ii) The function of structure Y (the ovary) is to contain the ovules, which, after fertilisation, develop into seeds. [1] The ovary wall itself develops into the fruit wall (pericarp), protecting the developing seeds.
(b) Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower. [1] It is a physical transport event that can be carried out by wind, insects or other agents. Fertilisation is the fusion of the male gamete (from the pollen grain) with the female gamete (egg cell) inside the ovule. [1] Pollination must occur first to deliver the pollen to the stigma; only then can the pollen tube grow down the style to the ovule and fertilisation can take place. Pollination delivers the pollen; fertilisation is the actual union of the sex cells to form a zygote. [1]
(c) Two features that distinguish wind-pollinated flowers from insect-pollinated flowers (any two paired comparisons): [2]
Another acceptable comparison: wind-pollinated flowers have large, feathery stigmas that hang outside the flower to catch airborne pollen, while insect-pollinated flowers have stigmas positioned inside the flower where visiting insects will brush against them.
Labelled answer diagram:
(a)(i) The structures labelled on the longitudinal section of the flower: [3]
(a)(ii) The function of structure Y (the ovary) is to contain the ovules, which, after fertilisation, develop into seeds. [1] The ovary wall itself develops into the fruit wall (pericarp), protecting the developing seeds.
(b) Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower. [1] It is a physical transport event that can be carried out by wind, insects or other agents. Fertilisation is the fusion of the male gamete (from the pollen grain) with the female gamete (egg cell) inside the ovule. [1] Pollination must occur first to deliver the pollen to the stigma; only then can the pollen tube grow down the style to the ovule and fertilisation can take place. Pollination delivers the pollen; fertilisation is the actual union of the sex cells to form a zygote. [1]
(c) Two features that distinguish wind-pollinated flowers from insect-pollinated flowers (any two paired comparisons): [2]
Another acceptable comparison: wind-pollinated flowers have large, feathery stigmas that hang outside the flower to catch airborne pollen, while insect-pollinated flowers have stigmas positioned inside the flower where visiting insects will brush against them.
Question 4 Report
(a) Explain what is meant by green manuring. [2]
(b) A farmer in a tropical region grows cowpeas as a green manure crop before planting cassava.
(i) Describe two benefits that the cowpea crop provides to the soil before it is ploughed in. [2]
(ii) Explain why ploughing in the cowpea plants at the flowering stage is more beneficial than waiting until the seeds have matured. [2]
(c) Apart from green manuring, suggest two other methods a farmer can use to add organic matter to the soil. [2]
[Total: 8]
(a) Green manuring is the practice of growing a crop (usually a legume) specifically for the purpose of ploughing it back into the soil while the plants are still green and actively growing, [1] in order to add organic matter and nutrients to the soil and improve its fertility. [1]
(b)(i) Two benefits the cowpea crop provides to the soil before it is ploughed in (any two): [2]
(b)(ii) Why ploughing in at the flowering stage is more beneficial than waiting until seed maturity: [2]
(c) Two other methods of adding organic matter to the soil, apart from green manuring (any two): [2]
Other acceptable answers: mulching with crop residues; applying biosolids / sewage sludge.
(a) Green manuring is the practice of growing a crop (usually a legume) specifically for the purpose of ploughing it back into the soil while the plants are still green and actively growing, [1] in order to add organic matter and nutrients to the soil and improve its fertility. [1]
(b)(i) Two benefits the cowpea crop provides to the soil before it is ploughed in (any two): [2]
(b)(ii) Why ploughing in at the flowering stage is more beneficial than waiting until seed maturity: [2]
(c) Two other methods of adding organic matter to the soil, apart from green manuring (any two): [2]
Other acceptable answers: mulching with crop residues; applying biosolids / sewage sludge.
Question 5 Report
(a) A cattle farmer notices that several animals in a herd are showing signs of poor health.
State four signs that indicate an animal may be suffering from ill health. [4]
(b) The farmer suspects the animals have a heavy infestation of internal parasites.
Explain three effects that internal parasites can have on the productivity of beef cattle. [3]
(c) Describe how the farmer should administer an oral dose of anthelmintic to one of the affected animals. [2]
(a) Four signs that indicate an animal may be suffering from ill health (any four): [4]
Other acceptable signs: discharge from eyes or nose; diarrhoea or abnormal droppings; reduced milk yield; pale mucous membranes (indicating anaemia); coughing; swollen joints or lameness; elevated body temperature.
(b) Three effects of internal parasites on beef cattle productivity (any three): [3]
Other valid effects: reduced feed conversion efficiency; liver damage from liver fluke reducing protein metabolism.
(c) Administering an oral anthelmintic dose: [2]
(a) Four signs that indicate an animal may be suffering from ill health (any four): [4]
Other acceptable signs: discharge from eyes or nose; diarrhoea or abnormal droppings; reduced milk yield; pale mucous membranes (indicating anaemia); coughing; swollen joints or lameness; elevated body temperature.
(b) Three effects of internal parasites on beef cattle productivity (any three): [3]
Other valid effects: reduced feed conversion efficiency; liver damage from liver fluke reducing protein metabolism.
(c) Administering an oral anthelmintic dose: [2]
Question 6 Report
(a) State two differences between extensive and intensive pasture management. [2]
(b) A farmer in a semi-arid region manages 200 hectares of natural veld for 80 beef cattle.
(i) Calculate the stocking rate in hectares per animal. [1]
(ii) Explain why the stocking rate on natural veld is usually lower than on improved pasture. [2]
(c) Describe two ways in which controlled burning can be used to manage natural veld. [2]
(a) Two differences between extensive and intensive pasture management:
| Feature | Extensive | Intensive |
|---|---|---|
| Land and inputs | Large areas of natural/unimproved grasses with low inputs (no fertiliser, no irrigation) [1] | Smaller areas of improved/planted pastures with high inputs (fertiliser, irrigation, reseeding) [1] |
| Output | Low output per hectare | High output per hectare |
(b)(i) Stocking rate calculation:
\[ \text{Stocking rate} = \frac{\text{Total area}}{\text{Number of animals}} = \frac{200 \text{ ha}}{80 \text{ cattle}} = 2.5 \text{ ha per animal} \quad [1] \]
(b)(ii) The stocking rate on natural veld is lower (more hectares per animal) than on improved pasture because natural veld has lower grass productivity and slower regrowth rates [1]. The unimproved grasses also have lower nutritive value (less protein, less digestible energy), so each animal needs a larger grazing area to meet its daily feed requirements [1].
(c) Two ways controlled burning manages natural veld (any two for [2]):
Other acceptable points: stimulates germination of fire-adapted grass species; reduces tick and parasite habitat in dead thatch.
(a) Two differences between extensive and intensive pasture management:
| Feature | Extensive | Intensive |
|---|---|---|
| Land and inputs | Large areas of natural/unimproved grasses with low inputs (no fertiliser, no irrigation) [1] | Smaller areas of improved/planted pastures with high inputs (fertiliser, irrigation, reseeding) [1] |
| Output | Low output per hectare | High output per hectare |
(b)(i) Stocking rate calculation:
\[ \text{Stocking rate} = \frac{\text{Total area}}{\text{Number of animals}} = \frac{200 \text{ ha}}{80 \text{ cattle}} = 2.5 \text{ ha per animal} \quad [1] \]
(b)(ii) The stocking rate on natural veld is lower (more hectares per animal) than on improved pasture because natural veld has lower grass productivity and slower regrowth rates [1]. The unimproved grasses also have lower nutritive value (less protein, less digestible energy), so each animal needs a larger grazing area to meet its daily feed requirements [1].
(c) Two ways controlled burning manages natural veld (any two for [2]):
Other acceptable points: stimulates germination of fire-adapted grass species; reduces tick and parasite habitat in dead thatch.
Question 7 Report
(a) A smallholder farmer grows maize, beans, groundnuts and vegetables in a four-year crop rotation on the same piece of land.
(i) State the meaning of the term crop rotation. [2]
(ii) Explain why it is important to include a legume in the rotation. [2]
(iii) Describe two other ways in which crop rotation helps to maintain soil fertility. [2]
(b) The farmer applies 200 kg of a compound fertiliser with the ratio 20:10:10 (N:P:K) to a 0.5 hectare field of maize.
(i) Calculate the mass of nitrogen applied to the field. Show your working. [2]
(ii) Calculate the rate of nitrogen application per hectare. [1]
(c) Suggest two problems that could result from applying too much nitrogen fertiliser to the maize crop. [2]
(d) Describe the role of phosphorus in plant growth. [2]
[Total: 15]
(a)(i) Crop rotation is the practice of growing different crops in a planned sequence on the same piece of land over a period of years or seasons. [2] Each crop in the sequence is chosen to complement the others in terms of nutrient use, pest susceptibility, and soil structure effects.
(a)(ii) Including a legume in the rotation is important because legumes (such as beans and groundnuts) have root nodules containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium). [1] These bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonium/nitrates that remain in the soil after the legume crop is harvested or ploughed in, enriching the soil with nitrogen for the benefit of the next crop in the sequence. [1]
(a)(iii) Two other ways crop rotation helps maintain soil fertility (any two): [2]
(b)(i) Mass of nitrogen applied to the field:
\[ \text{Nitrogen} = \frac{20}{100} \times 200 \text{ kg} = 40 \text{ kg} \]
[1] for the correct method and [1] for the answer of 40 kg.
(b)(ii) Rate of nitrogen application per hectare:
\[ \text{Rate} = \frac{40 \text{ kg}}{0.5 \text{ ha}} = 80 \text{ kg per hectare} \]
[1]
(c) Two problems from excessive nitrogen fertiliser (any two): [2]
Other valid problems: delayed crop maturity; increased susceptibility to fungal diseases and pest attack due to soft, sappy growth.
(d) The role of phosphorus in plant growth: [2]
(a)(i) Crop rotation is the practice of growing different crops in a planned sequence on the same piece of land over a period of years or seasons. [2] Each crop in the sequence is chosen to complement the others in terms of nutrient use, pest susceptibility, and soil structure effects.
(a)(ii) Including a legume in the rotation is important because legumes (such as beans and groundnuts) have root nodules containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium). [1] These bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonium/nitrates that remain in the soil after the legume crop is harvested or ploughed in, enriching the soil with nitrogen for the benefit of the next crop in the sequence. [1]
(a)(iii) Two other ways crop rotation helps maintain soil fertility (any two): [2]
(b)(i) Mass of nitrogen applied to the field:
\[ \text{Nitrogen} = \frac{20}{100} \times 200 \text{ kg} = 40 \text{ kg} \]
[1] for the correct method and [1] for the answer of 40 kg.
(b)(ii) Rate of nitrogen application per hectare:
\[ \text{Rate} = \frac{40 \text{ kg}}{0.5 \text{ ha}} = 80 \text{ kg per hectare} \]
[1]
(c) Two problems from excessive nitrogen fertiliser (any two): [2]
Other valid problems: delayed crop maturity; increased susceptibility to fungal diseases and pest attack due to soft, sappy growth.
(d) The role of phosphorus in plant growth: [2]
Question 8 Report
(a) A farmer in a tropical region is preparing land that was previously under bush fallow for maize cultivation.
(i) State two methods the farmer could use to clear the bush vegetation. [2]
(ii) Explain why burning the cleared vegetation may not be the best option. [3]
(b) After clearing, the farmer carries out primary tillage using an ox-drawn mouldboard plough.
(i) Describe how a mouldboard plough turns the soil. [3]
(ii) State two effects of primary tillage on the physical condition of the soil. [2]
(c) Suggest why the farmer should carry out secondary tillage before planting. [2]
[Total: 12]
(a)(i) Two methods to clear bush vegetation (any two for [2]):
Also acceptable: uprooting stumps with chains/winch; ring-barking large trees; applying herbicide before clearing.
(a)(ii) Three reasons why burning cleared vegetation may not be the best option:
(b)(i) How a mouldboard plough turns the soil:
(b)(ii) Two effects of primary tillage on soil physical condition (any two for [2]):
Also acceptable: buries surface weeds and residues; loosens soil for easier root penetration.
(c) Secondary tillage is needed because primary ploughing leaves the field rough, with large clods of soil. Secondary tillage (harrowing) breaks these clods into a fine tilth [1], creating a level, crumbly seedbed that provides good seed-to-soil contact for even germination and allows uniform planting depth [1].
(a)(i) Two methods to clear bush vegetation (any two for [2]):
Also acceptable: uprooting stumps with chains/winch; ring-barking large trees; applying herbicide before clearing.
(a)(ii) Three reasons why burning cleared vegetation may not be the best option:
(b)(i) How a mouldboard plough turns the soil:
(b)(ii) Two effects of primary tillage on soil physical condition (any two for [2]):
Also acceptable: buries surface weeds and residues; loosens soil for easier root penetration.
(c) Secondary tillage is needed because primary ploughing leaves the field rough, with large clods of soil. Secondary tillage (harrowing) breaks these clods into a fine tilth [1], creating a level, crumbly seedbed that provides good seed-to-soil contact for even germination and allows uniform planting depth [1].
Question 9 Report
(a) In poultry, the allele for feathered shanks (F) is dominant over the allele for clean shanks (f).
A poultry farmer noticed that some chicks hatched with clean shanks even though both parent birds had feathered shanks.
(i) State the genotypes of the two parent birds. [1]
(ii) Name the type of allele that is not expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygous individual. [1]
(b) The farmer wants to produce a flock of birds that all have clean shanks for a local market that prefers clean-shanked birds.
(i) State the genotype of a clean-shanked bird. [1]
(ii) Describe how the farmer could produce a flock that breeds true for clean shanks within two generations. [3]
(c) Explain the difference between genotype and phenotype. [2]
(a)(i) The genotypes of both parent birds are Ff (heterozygous). [1] Both parents have feathered shanks (dominant phenotype), yet some chicks have clean shanks (recessive phenotype ff). For a clean-shanked chick to appear, it must inherit a recessive allele (f) from each parent, so both parents must carry at least one f allele.
(a)(ii) The type of allele not expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygous individual is the recessive allele. [1] In a heterozygous organism (Ff), the dominant allele (F) determines the phenotype, and the recessive allele (f) is present but its effect is masked.
(b)(i) The genotype of a clean-shanked bird is ff (homozygous recessive). [1] Clean shanks only appear when no dominant allele is present.
(b)(ii) To produce a flock that breeds true for clean shanks within two generations:
This is achievable within two generations because the farmer already has ff birds available in the flock.
(c) The difference between genotype and phenotype:
(a)(i) The genotypes of both parent birds are Ff (heterozygous). [1] Both parents have feathered shanks (dominant phenotype), yet some chicks have clean shanks (recessive phenotype ff). For a clean-shanked chick to appear, it must inherit a recessive allele (f) from each parent, so both parents must carry at least one f allele.
(a)(ii) The type of allele not expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygous individual is the recessive allele. [1] In a heterozygous organism (Ff), the dominant allele (F) determines the phenotype, and the recessive allele (f) is present but its effect is masked.
(b)(i) The genotype of a clean-shanked bird is ff (homozygous recessive). [1] Clean shanks only appear when no dominant allele is present.
(b)(ii) To produce a flock that breeds true for clean shanks within two generations:
This is achievable within two generations because the farmer already has ff birds available in the flock.
(c) The difference between genotype and phenotype:
Question 10 Report
(a) State what is meant by the term progeny testing. [2]
(b) A beef farmer wants to select a bull for breeding.
Explain why progeny testing is more reliable than judging the bull by its own appearance. [3]
(c) Describe how the farmer would carry out a progeny test on two bulls, Bull A and Bull B, to decide which one to use for breeding. [4]
(a) Progeny testing is the practice of judging the breeding value of an animal [1] by examining the quality and performance of its offspring (progeny). [1] Rather than assessing the animal itself, the breeder measures traits in the next generation to determine what genes the parent actually transmits.
(b) Progeny testing is more reliable than judging the bull by its own appearance because:
(c) Procedure for a progeny test comparing Bull A and Bull B:
(a) Progeny testing is the practice of judging the breeding value of an animal [1] by examining the quality and performance of its offspring (progeny). [1] Rather than assessing the animal itself, the breeder measures traits in the next generation to determine what genes the parent actually transmits.
(b) Progeny testing is more reliable than judging the bull by its own appearance because:
(c) Procedure for a progeny test comparing Bull A and Bull B:
Question 11 Report
(a) Name the causative agent of East Coast fever in cattle. [1]
(b) Describe how East Coast fever is transmitted to cattle. [3]
(c) A dairy farmer notices that several cows have swollen lymph nodes, high fever and are losing condition rapidly.
(i) Suggest two other signs the farmer might observe in cattle affected by East Coast fever. [2]
(ii) Explain two preventive measures the farmer should adopt to protect the remaining herd. [4]
(a) The causative agent of East Coast fever is Theileria parva, a protozoan parasite [1].
(b) Transmission of East Coast fever (3 marks):
(c)(i) Two other signs of East Coast fever besides swollen lymph nodes and fever (any two for [2]):
Also acceptable: diarrhoea; loss of appetite; rough coat; anaemia (pale mucous membranes).
(c)(ii) Two preventive measures explained (each for [2], total [4]):
Also acceptable: rotational grazing to reduce tick burdens on pasture; vaccination where available (infection-and-treatment immunisation method).
(a) The causative agent of East Coast fever is Theileria parva, a protozoan parasite [1].
(b) Transmission of East Coast fever (3 marks):
(c)(i) Two other signs of East Coast fever besides swollen lymph nodes and fever (any two for [2]):
Also acceptable: diarrhoea; loss of appetite; rough coat; anaemia (pale mucous membranes).
(c)(ii) Two preventive measures explained (each for [2], total [4]):
Also acceptable: rotational grazing to reduce tick burdens on pasture; vaccination where available (infection-and-treatment immunisation method).
Question 12 Report
(a) Maize (Zea mays) is a monoecious plant with separate male and female flowers on the same plant.
(i) State the name given to the male flower cluster at the top of a maize plant. [1]
(ii) Describe how pollen reaches the female flowers (silks) in maize. [2]
(iii) Explain why maize is described as a cross-pollinated crop. [2]
(b) A seed company produces hybrid maize seed.
(i) Describe the steps a breeder follows to produce F1 hybrid maize seed, starting from two inbred parent lines. [5]
(ii) Explain why farmers are advised to buy fresh hybrid seed each season rather than save grain from the previous harvest for planting. [2]
(c) Suggest three characteristics a breeder would select for when developing a new maize variety for a drought-prone region. [3]
[Total: 15]
(a)(i) The male flower cluster at the top of a maize plant is called the tassel. [1]
(a)(ii) Pollen is released from the anthers on the tassel at the top of the maize plant. [1] Wind carries the light, dry pollen grains downward and sideways, where they land on the exposed silks (stigmas) that protrude from the ear (the female flower structure) on the same or neighbouring plants. [1]
(a)(iii) Maize is described as a cross-pollinated crop because the male flowers (tassel) and female flowers (ear/silks) on the same plant typically mature at slightly different times, a phenomenon called protandry (the tassel sheds pollen before the silks on the same plant are fully receptive). [1] This timing difference means that pollen from one plant is more likely to land on the receptive silks of a neighbouring plant rather than its own, promoting cross-pollination and genetic mixing within the population. [1]
(b)(i) Steps to produce F1 hybrid maize seed from two inbred parent lines: [5]
(b)(ii) Farmers are advised to buy fresh hybrid seed each season because F1 hybrid plants are heterozygous (carrying different alleles from the two parent lines). [1] If the farmer saves grain from an F1 crop and plants it, the resulting F2 generation will segregate genetically, showing wide variation in plant height, maturity, disease resistance and yield. This genetic recombination leads to reduced vigour and uneven, lower yields compared with the uniform F1 generation. [1]
(c) Three characteristics a breeder would select for in a drought-prone region (any three): [3]
Other acceptable characteristics include resistance to storage pests (weevils) and resistance to common diseases in the region such as maize streak virus.
(a)(i) The male flower cluster at the top of a maize plant is called the tassel. [1]
(a)(ii) Pollen is released from the anthers on the tassel at the top of the maize plant. [1] Wind carries the light, dry pollen grains downward and sideways, where they land on the exposed silks (stigmas) that protrude from the ear (the female flower structure) on the same or neighbouring plants. [1]
(a)(iii) Maize is described as a cross-pollinated crop because the male flowers (tassel) and female flowers (ear/silks) on the same plant typically mature at slightly different times, a phenomenon called protandry (the tassel sheds pollen before the silks on the same plant are fully receptive). [1] This timing difference means that pollen from one plant is more likely to land on the receptive silks of a neighbouring plant rather than its own, promoting cross-pollination and genetic mixing within the population. [1]
(b)(i) Steps to produce F1 hybrid maize seed from two inbred parent lines: [5]
(b)(ii) Farmers are advised to buy fresh hybrid seed each season because F1 hybrid plants are heterozygous (carrying different alleles from the two parent lines). [1] If the farmer saves grain from an F1 crop and plants it, the resulting F2 generation will segregate genetically, showing wide variation in plant height, maturity, disease resistance and yield. This genetic recombination leads to reduced vigour and uneven, lower yields compared with the uniform F1 generation. [1]
(c) Three characteristics a breeder would select for in a drought-prone region (any three): [3]
Other acceptable characteristics include resistance to storage pests (weevils) and resistance to common diseases in the region such as maize streak virus.
Question 13 Report
7 An agricultural extension officer visited two farms in different climate zones. Farm P is in a hot, dry savanna region and Farm Q is in a cool, wet highland region.
(a) Explain how soil temperature would differ between the two farms during the growing season. [2]
(b) Describe two effects that high soil temperature can have on soil organisms. [2]
(c) State one method that the farmer at Farm P could use to reduce soil temperature. Explain how this method works. [3]
(d) Suggest why the farmer at Farm Q might need to use raised beds for vegetable production. [2]
(a) Soil temperature differences between the two farms during the growing season:
(b) Two effects of high soil temperature on soil organisms:
(c) One method to reduce soil temperature at Farm P, with an explanation of how it works:
Apply mulch to the soil surface (using dried grass, straw, crop residues, or other organic material).
[3]
(d) The farmer at Farm Q (cool, wet highland) might need raised beds for vegetable production because:
(a) Soil temperature differences between the two farms during the growing season:
(b) Two effects of high soil temperature on soil organisms:
(c) One method to reduce soil temperature at Farm P, with an explanation of how it works:
Apply mulch to the soil surface (using dried grass, straw, crop residues, or other organic material).
[3]
(d) The farmer at Farm Q (cool, wet highland) might need raised beds for vegetable production because:
Question 14 Report
(a) State what is meant by the term line breeding. [2]
(b) A pig breeder uses line breeding to improve the litter size of a herd of sows.
(i) Describe how the breeder would carry out line breeding over three generations to increase litter size. [4]
(ii) State one risk associated with line breeding if it is continued for too many generations. [1]
(c) The breeder also wants to improve the feed conversion ratio of the pigs.
The chart shows the feed conversion ratio of five boars tested over a 90-day feeding trial.
Which boar has the best feed conversion ratio? Explain your answer. [2]
(d) Suggest why a farmer might choose to buy hybrid breeding stock from a commercial breeder rather than carrying out a selective breeding programme on the farm. [2]
(e) State two characteristics, other than litter size and feed conversion ratio, that a pig farmer might select for. [2]
(f) Explain one way in which selective breeding of farm animals differs from natural selection. [2]
(a) Line breeding is a form of selective breeding in which animals that are related, but not as closely as parent-offspring or full siblings, are mated together (e.g. half-siblings, cousins, uncle-niece). [1] The aim is to concentrate the genes of a particular outstanding ancestor in the offspring, increasing the likelihood that the ancestor's desirable traits are inherited homozygously. [1]
(b)(i) How the breeder would carry out line breeding over three generations to increase litter size:
(b)(ii) One risk of continuing line breeding for too many generations is inbreeding depression. As relatedness accumulates, harmful recessive alleles become homozygous, leading to reduced fertility, smaller litters, lower disease resistance, and poorer overall performance. [1]
(c) Boar D has the best feed conversion ratio at 2.8. [1] A lower feed conversion ratio means the animal converts feed into body mass more efficiently - it needs fewer kilograms of feed to gain one kilogram of body weight. Therefore Boar D is the most feed-efficient, reducing feed costs per kilogram of pork produced. [1]
(d) A farmer might choose to buy hybrid breeding stock from a commercial breeder rather than running an on-farm programme because:
(e) Two other characteristics a pig farmer might select for:
(f) One way selective breeding differs from natural selection:
In selective breeding, humans deliberately choose which animals are allowed to reproduce, based on traits the farmer considers economically desirable (such as litter size or growth rate). [1] In natural selection, the environment determines which animals survive and reproduce. Traits that aid survival and reproduction in that environment are favoured, regardless of whether they are useful to humans. Selective breeding is therefore directed towards human goals, while natural selection is driven by environmental fitness. [1]
(a) Line breeding is a form of selective breeding in which animals that are related, but not as closely as parent-offspring or full siblings, are mated together (e.g. half-siblings, cousins, uncle-niece). [1] The aim is to concentrate the genes of a particular outstanding ancestor in the offspring, increasing the likelihood that the ancestor's desirable traits are inherited homozygously. [1]
(b)(i) How the breeder would carry out line breeding over three generations to increase litter size:
(b)(ii) One risk of continuing line breeding for too many generations is inbreeding depression. As relatedness accumulates, harmful recessive alleles become homozygous, leading to reduced fertility, smaller litters, lower disease resistance, and poorer overall performance. [1]
(c) Boar D has the best feed conversion ratio at 2.8. [1] A lower feed conversion ratio means the animal converts feed into body mass more efficiently - it needs fewer kilograms of feed to gain one kilogram of body weight. Therefore Boar D is the most feed-efficient, reducing feed costs per kilogram of pork produced. [1]
(d) A farmer might choose to buy hybrid breeding stock from a commercial breeder rather than running an on-farm programme because:
(e) Two other characteristics a pig farmer might select for:
(f) One way selective breeding differs from natural selection:
In selective breeding, humans deliberately choose which animals are allowed to reproduce, based on traits the farmer considers economically desirable (such as litter size or growth rate). [1] In natural selection, the environment determines which animals survive and reproduce. Traits that aid survival and reproduction in that environment are favoured, regardless of whether they are useful to humans. Selective breeding is therefore directed towards human goals, while natural selection is driven by environmental fitness. [1]
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