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Question 1 Report
A student pushes different objects with different forces along a flat surface. The table shows the results.
| Object | Force (N) | Distance (m) | Work done (J) |
|---|---|---|---|
| P | 10 | 3.0 | 30 |
| Q | 20 | 2.0 | 40 |
| R | 15 | 4.0 | ? |
| S | 25 | 2.0 | 50 |
What is the work done on object R?
Answer Details
Work done is calculated using:
\[ W = F \times d \]
For object R:
\[ W = 15 \times 4.0 = 60 \text{ J} \]
This is consistent with the pattern shown for the other objects: P gives \( 10 \times 3.0 = 30 \text{ J} \), Q gives \( 20 \times 2.0 = 40 \text{ J} \), and S gives \( 25 \times 2.0 = 50 \text{ J} \).
Question 2 Report
Current flows through the solenoid from X to Y as shown. Using the right-hand grip rule, which end of the solenoid becomes the north pole?
Answer Details
To determine which end of the solenoid is the north pole, use the right-hand grip rule for a solenoid: wrap the fingers of your right hand around the solenoid in the direction the conventional current flows around the coils. Your thumb then points toward the north pole.
With current flowing from X to Y through the solenoid, applying the right-hand grip rule shows that end X becomes the north pole.
Alternatively, looking at the solenoid from end X, if the current flows anticlockwise, that end is a north pole (think: N for aNticlockwise). If the current flows clockwise, that end is a south pole.
Question 3 Report
Fig. 1.18 shows two parallel metal plates connected to a battery. The top plate is positive and the bottom plate is negative. A small positive charge is placed at point P between the plates.
In which direction does the electric force act on the positive charge at P?
Answer Details
The electric field between the plates points from the positive plate (top) to the negative plate (bottom), as shown by the field line arrows in the diagram. A positive charge placed in this field experiences a force in the same direction as the field, i.e. downward, toward the negative plate.
A negative charge would experience a force in the opposite direction (upward, toward the positive plate). The field between parallel plates is uniform, meaning the force on the charge is the same regardless of where it is placed between the plates.
Question 4 Report
The table shows the number of hours of daylight at a location in the Northern Hemisphere during four months of the year.
| Month | Hours of daylight | Season in Northern Hemisphere |
|---|---|---|
| March | 12.0 | Spring |
| June | 16.3 | Summer |
| September | 12.0 | Autumn |
| December | 7.8 | Winter |
What causes June to have more hours of daylight than December at this location?
Answer Details
June has more hours of daylight than December at a Northern Hemisphere location because of the tilt of the Earth's axis. In June, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun, so the Sun follows a higher and longer path across the sky, giving more hours of daylight and more concentrated heating. In December, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun, resulting in fewer daylight hours and weaker sunlight.
The difference is not caused by changes in the Earth's distance from the Sun, which varies only slightly and has a negligible effect on daylight hours.
Question 5 Report
Fig. 1.1 shows a coil in a generator. The coil is horizontal, with its plane parallel to the magnetic field lines.
At this position, the induced e.m.f. is
Answer Details
When the coil plane is parallel to the magnetic field lines (the coil is horizontal), the sides of the coil are cutting through the field lines at the maximum rate. This is the position where the rate of change of flux linkage is greatest, so the induced e.m.f. is at its maximum value.
By contrast, when the coil plane is perpendicular to the field (coil vertical), the sides move parallel to the field lines and do not cut through them, so the induced e.m.f. is zero at that instant. The e.m.f. varies sinusoidally as the coil rotates.
Question 6 Report
Fig. 1.1 shows a rectangular block that can be placed on a surface in three different orientations. The block has a weight of 50 N. Which orientation gives the greatest pressure on the surface?
Answer Details
Pressure is defined as force per unit area: \(P = \frac{F}{A}\). The block weighs 50 N in all three orientations, so the force on the surface is the same each time. What changes is the contact area.
The greatest pressure occurs when the same force is applied over the smallest area. From the diagram, position 3 has the block standing on its smallest face, giving the smallest contact area and therefore the greatest pressure.
Position 1 (wide face down) gives the largest contact area and therefore the lowest pressure. The option stating all positions give the same pressure is incorrect because, although the weight is the same, the contact area differs. Pressure depends on both force and area, not force alone.
Question 7 Report
Short-sightedness occurs because the eyeball is slightly too long. Where does the eye focus light from a distant object?
Answer Details
In a short-sighted eye, the eyeball is too long from front to back. Parallel light from a distant object is brought to a focus in front of the retina, rather than on it. The light rays then diverge again before reaching the retina, producing a blurred image. Near objects can still be focused because diverging rays from close objects are converged to a focus further back, reaching the retina correctly. The correction uses a diverging lens to spread the light before it enters the eye.
Question 8 Report
A beaker of water at 60 °C is left in a room at 20 °C. After a long time, the water temperature is 20 °C. No more net energy transfer occurs between the water and the room. What is this condition called?
Answer Details
When two objects at different temperatures are in thermal contact, energy transfers from the hotter object to the cooler one. This continues until both objects reach the same temperature. Once the temperatures are equal, there is no net transfer of energy between them. This condition is called thermal equilibrium.
In this scenario, the water starts at 60 °C and the room is at 20 °C. Energy transfers from the warmer water to the cooler surroundings until the water cools to 20 °C. At that point, water and room are at the same temperature and no further net energy flow occurs.
Absolute zero is the lowest possible temperature (-273 °C), not a condition of energy balance. Boiling point refers to a specific phase-change temperature. Thermal insulation is a property of a material that slows heat transfer - it does not describe the state of equal temperatures.
Question 9 Report
An irregular lamina is suspended in turn from pin A and from pin B. Each time, a vertical line is drawn on the lamina using a plumb line. The diagram shows the result. Four points P, Q, R and S are marked on the lamina.
At which point is the centre of gravity of the lamina?
Answer Details
To find the centre of gravity of an irregular lamina, it is suspended from two different points (A and B). Each time, a vertical plumb line is drawn on the lamina. The centre of gravity lies at the intersection of these two lines.
The two dashed lines from pins A and B intersect at point P. Therefore, the centre of gravity of the lamina is at point P. Points Q, R, and S are not at the intersection and so cannot be the centre of gravity.
Question 10 Report
Table 1.1 shows the power rating and efficiency of four electric motors. Which motor provides the greatest useful output power?
| motor | input power / W | efficiency / % |
|---|---|---|
| P | 200 | 90 |
| Q | 500 | 40 |
| R | 300 | 60 |
| S | 150 | 80 |
Answer Details
Useful output power equals the input power multiplied by the efficiency (expressed as a decimal):
\[ P_{\text{useful}} = P_{\text{input}} \times \text{efficiency} \]
Motor Q provides the greatest useful output power at 200 W, despite having the lowest efficiency. A high input power can compensate for low efficiency. This illustrates why both the power rating and the efficiency must be considered together when determining useful output.
Question 11 Report
An astronaut performs a spacewalk outside the International Space Station, where the effective gravitational field strength is approximately zero.
What is the mass and the approximate weight of the astronaut during the spacewalk?
Answer Details
Mass is an intrinsic property of the astronaut and does not change regardless of location. The astronaut's mass remains 85 kg during the spacewalk. In orbit where the effective gravitational field strength is approximately zero, the apparent weight is approximately 0 N. The astronaut is in free fall (continuously falling around the Earth), so there is no contact force and the apparent weight is zero, even though the actual gravitational pull is only slightly less than on Earth's surface.
Question 12 Report
A house has cavity walls. The cavity is filled with foam that traps many small pockets of air. Which statement best explains how this foam reduces thermal energy loss through the walls?
Answer Details
Trapped air is a poor conductor of thermal energy, so the many small pockets of air held within the foam reduce heat loss by conduction across the cavity. Just as importantly, because the air is broken up into many small, separate pockets, it cannot circulate freely as a single body of air, which prevents convection currents from forming across the cavity.
The foam reduces thermal energy loss mainly by trapping air in small pockets, which are poor conductors of heat and cannot set up convection currents. Without the foam, a large open cavity of air could circulate freely, carrying warm air away by convection much faster.
Question 13 Report
The diagram shows a T-shaped object made from two identical uniform rectangular strips of metal joined together.
Which point is closest to the centre of gravity of the T-shaped object?
Answer Details
The centre of gravity of a composite object is the single point where the entire weight can be considered to act. For a T-shape made of two identical strips, each strip has the same mass. The horizontal strip has its centre of gravity at its geometric centre (the midpoint of the top bar), and the vertical strip has its centre of gravity at its geometric centre (the midpoint of the vertical bar, well below the junction).
The overall centre of gravity lies on the axis of symmetry (the vertical line through the middle), at a position between the two individual centres. Since both strips have equal mass, the combined centre of gravity is exactly halfway between them. This point falls near the junction where the two strips meet, slightly below the top of the vertical strip. Of the labelled points, P is nearest to this location.
Points further down the vertical strip (like Q) would only be correct if the vertical strip were much heavier. A point at the centre of the horizontal strip alone (like R) ignores the mass below the junction. The centre of gravity must lie on the axis of symmetry, which eliminates any off-centre point.
Question 14 Report
A student measures the weight of a 4.0 kg metal block using a newton meter on three different bodies in the solar system.
What is the approximate gravitational field strength on Venus?
Answer Details
The bar chart shows the weight of a 4.0 kg metal block on three bodies. To find the gravitational field strength on Venus, read the weight from the chart and use g = W / m.
From the chart, the Venus bar reaches approximately 30 N. Dividing by the mass: g = 30 N / 4.0 kg = 7.5 N/kg. For comparison, the Earth bar reads about 40 N (g = 40 / 4.0 = 10 N/kg, as expected) and the Moon bar reads roughly 14 N (g = 14 / 4.0 = 3.5 N/kg).
The calculation requires recognizing that mass stays constant at 4.0 kg regardless of location, and that weight varies because each body has a different gravitational field strength. A common mistake is to read the weight value directly as the gravitational field strength without dividing by the mass.
Question 15 Report
The table shows the force and area for four different situations. One pressure value is missing.
| Situation | Force / N | Area / m² | Pressure / Pa |
|---|---|---|---|
| J | 120 | 0.030 | 4000 |
| K | 480 | 0.080 | ? |
| L | 250 | 0.050 | 5000 |
| M | 360 | 0.12 | 3000 |
What is the missing pressure for situation K?
Answer Details
Using \( p = F / A \):
\[ p = \frac{480}{0.080} = 6000 \text{ Pa} \]The missing pressure for situation K is 6000 Pa. This can be verified by checking the other rows: J gives \( 120/0.030 = 4000 \) Pa, L gives \( 250/0.050 = 5000 \) Pa, and M gives \( 360/0.12 = 3000 \) Pa, all consistent with the table.
Question 16 Report
An oscilloscope displays the output from a small hand-cranked generator. The time-base is set to 4 ms per division. The trace is shown below.
How many complete cycles appear in the first 8 divisions and what is the frequency of the output?
Answer Details
From the CRO trace, each complete wave (one full cycle) occupies 2 divisions on the screen.
The period \(T\) of the wave is:
\[T = 2 \times 4\,\text{ms/div} = 8\,\text{ms} = 0.008\,\text{s}\]In the first 8 divisions, the number of complete cycles is:
\[\text{number of cycles} = \frac{8\,\text{div}}{2\,\text{div/cycle}} = 4\,\text{cycles}\]The frequency is:
\[f = \frac{1}{T} = \frac{1}{0.008} = 125\,\text{Hz}\]The correct answer is 4 complete cycles with a frequency of 125 Hz.
Question 17 Report
A swimmer completes two lengths of a 50 m pool. The table shows her times.
| Length | Distance / m | Time / s |
|---|---|---|
| 1st (outward) | 50 | 32 |
| 2nd (return) | 50 | 38 |
What are the average speed and the average velocity for the whole swim?
Answer Details
Average speed uses the total distance swum, while average velocity uses the net displacement from start to finish. The swimmer covers 50 m out and 50 m back, a total distance of 100 m, in a total time of \(32+38=70\ \text{s}\):
\[ \overline{v}_{speed} = \frac{100}{70} = 1.43\ \text{m/s} \]but since she finishes exactly back where she started (at the same end of the pool), her net displacement is zero, so
\[ \overline{v}_{velocity} = \frac{0}{70} = 0\ \text{m/s} \]A common mistake is quoting the same non-zero value for both quantities, forgetting that velocity is a vector and the outward and return displacements exactly cancel over a there-and-back journey, while speed (a scalar) does not.
Question 18 Report
Three identical lamps are connected in series with a battery. The ammeter near the battery reads 0.5 A.
What is the current between L2 and L3?
Answer Details
In a series circuit, there is only one path for the current to flow through. This means the current is the same at every point in the circuit. The ammeter near the battery reads 0.5 A, so the current flowing through every component, and through every section of wire, is also 0.5 A.
The current between L2 and L3 is therefore 0.5 A, identical to the current measured at the ammeter. The current does not split, divide, or reduce as it passes through successive lamps in a series arrangement. Each lamp may have a voltage drop across it, but the current remains constant throughout. This is a direct consequence of conservation of charge: charge cannot accumulate at any point in the circuit, so the same amount of charge per second must pass through every cross-section of the series loop.
Question 19 Report
Table 1.1 shows readings from an experiment where a fixed mass of gas is kept at constant temperature while its volume is changed.
| Volume / cm3 | Pressure / kPa | pV / kPa cm3 |
|---|---|---|
| 100 | 200 | 20 000 |
| 80 | 250 | 20 000 |
| 50 | 400 | 20 000 |
| 25 | 800 | 20 000 |
Which conclusion is best supported by Table 1.1?
Answer Details
The table shows that for every pair of volume and pressure readings, the product \(pV\) comes out to the same value, 20 000 kPa cm³, even though the individual pressure and volume readings change considerably (from 100 cm³/200 kPa up to 25 cm³/800 kPa).
This constant product is the defining feature of Boyle's law: for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, pressure is inversely proportional to volume, so that \(pV\) remains constant as one increases while the other decreases. The conclusion best supported by the table is that pressure and volume are inversely proportional at constant temperature.
Question 20 Report
The temperature of a pure substance remains constant while it is melting, even though energy is still being supplied. Why is this?
Answer Details
During melting, a substance changes from solid to liquid. The particles in a solid are held in fixed positions by intermolecular forces. To convert the solid into a liquid, these forces must be partially overcome so that particles can move more freely.
The energy being supplied during melting is used entirely to break or weaken these intermolecular bonds. This energy is called the latent heat of fusion. Because the energy goes into changing the arrangement of particles rather than increasing their speed, the average kinetic energy of the particles does not increase, and the temperature remains constant.
The substance has not reached any 'maximum temperature' - once melting is complete, further heating will raise the temperature again. The explanation is not about energy losses balancing gains either; it is specifically about the energy being redirected to overcome intermolecular forces.
Question 21 Report
A box is gradually tilted on its bottom-right edge. The diagrams show three stages. The dot marks the centre of gravity.
At which stage does the box first topple over?
Answer Details
An object topples when the vertical line drawn downward from its centre of gravity falls outside its base of support. At Stage 1 the box sits flat on the ground, so the centre of gravity is directly above the middle of the base and the box is stable. At Stage 2 the box is tilted on its bottom-right edge, but the vertical line through the centre of gravity still falls within (or on the edge of) the base, so the box would return to its original position if released.
At Stage 3 the tilt is large enough that the vertical line through the centre of gravity passes beyond the pivot edge. Once this happens, the weight of the box creates a turning moment that rotates it further away from the upright position rather than back towards it, and the box topples over.
The key principle is that stability depends on the horizontal position of the centre of gravity relative to the base. A wider base or a lower centre of gravity makes an object harder to topple. In examination questions involving tilting, always check whether the centre of gravity still lies above the support region.
Question 22 Report
Fig. 1.1 shows galaxies around an observer. The arrows show the direction of motion of each galaxy.
What does this observation tell us about the universe?
Answer Details
The diagram shows all galaxies moving away from the observer in every direction. This observation tells us that the universe is expanding.
The fact that galaxies in all directions are receding means this is not local motion but a universal expansion of space itself. Every observer, regardless of position, would see the same pattern. There is no centre of the expansion; space expands uniformly, carrying all galaxies apart.
Question 23 Report
The diagram shows a loudspeaker. An alternating current signal is applied to the coil.
What happens to the coil when the a.c. signal is applied?
Answer Details
When an alternating current flows through the coil of a loudspeaker, the coil experiences a force due to the interaction between its current and the permanent magnetic field. Because the current alternates direction, the force on the coil also alternates direction, causing the coil to vibrate back and forth rapidly. This vibration is transferred to the paper cone attached to the coil, which pushes and pulls the surrounding air to produce sound waves.
The frequency of vibration matches the frequency of the a.c. signal, reproducing the original sound.
Question 24 Report
The diagram shows a beam balance with an object on one side and standard masses on the other. The beam is level.
This balance gives the same reading on Earth and on the Moon. What does this balance measure?
Answer Details
A beam balance works by comparing the unknown object against standard masses on opposite sides of a pivot. When the beam is level, the turning effects (moments) on each side are equal, which happens when the masses are equal. Crucially, both the object and the standard masses experience the same gravitational field strength, so any change in g (for example, moving to the Moon) affects both sides equally and the balance point does not change.
This means a beam balance measures mass, not weight. A spring balance, by contrast, measures weight (the gravitational force on the object) and would give a lower reading on the Moon because g is smaller there. Since the beam balance gives the same reading regardless of location, it is not measuring weight, gravitational field strength, or density.
Question 25 Report
A nuclear fission chain reaction is said to be critical when exactly one neutron from each fission event goes on to cause one further fission. What happens to the rate of energy release in a critical reactor?
Answer Details
In a critical chain reaction, exactly one neutron from each fission event goes on to cause exactly one further fission event, meaning the number of fissions happening per unit time neither increases nor decreases from one generation to the next.
In a critical reactor, the rate of energy release stays constant (steady) over time, since the chain reaction is self-sustaining but not multiplying. If more than one neutron per fission caused further fissions on average, the reaction would be supercritical and the rate would increase rapidly; if fewer than one did, the reaction would be subcritical and the rate would decrease and eventually die out.
Question 26 Report
The table shows the specific latent heat of fusion for four metals.
| Substance | Specific latent heat of fusion / kJ/kg |
|---|---|
| aluminium | 397 |
| copper | 205 |
| iron | 247 |
| lead | 23 |
Which metal requires the most energy to melt 2.0 kg at its melting point?
Answer Details
To melt a given mass of a metal, the energy needed is found from \(E = mL\), so with the same mass (2.0 kg) used for every metal, the energy required is directly proportional to each metal's specific latent heat of fusion.
\[ E_{\text{Al}} = 2.0 \times 397 = 794 \text{ kJ} \qquad E_{\text{Cu}} = 2.0 \times 205 = 410 \text{ kJ} \] \[ E_{\text{Fe}} = 2.0 \times 247 = 494 \text{ kJ} \qquad E_{\text{Pb}} = 2.0 \times 23 = 46 \text{ kJ} \]Since aluminium has the largest specific latent heat of fusion (397 kJ/kg) among the four metals, it requires the most energy (794 kJ) to melt 2.0 kg at its melting point.
So aluminium requires the most energy. A common mistake is to assume the metal with the highest melting point requires the most energy to melt; the energy needed to melt a substance depends on its specific latent heat of fusion, not directly on how hot its melting point is.
Question 27 Report
Two blocks are placed on a surface as shown. Block X has a mass of 1.5 kg and block Y has a mass of 3.5 kg.
Taking g = 9.8 N/kg, what is the total weight of the two blocks?
Answer Details
Weight is calculated using W = m g. First find the total mass of the two blocks: 1.5 + 3.5 = 5.0 kg. Then multiply by the gravitational field strength: W = 5.0 x 9.8 = 49 N.
Alternatively, you can calculate each weight separately and add them: block X weighs 1.5 x 9.8 = 14.7 N and block Y weighs 3.5 x 9.8 = 34.3 N, giving a total of 14.7 + 34.3 = 49.0 N. Both methods give the same result. A common error is to use g = 10 N/kg instead of the stated 9.8 N/kg, which would give 50 N. Always use the value of g provided in the question rather than a rounded approximation.
Question 28 Report
A thermistor is connected in series with a 600 Ω fixed resistor and a 6.0 V battery of negligible internal resistance. The table shows how the resistance of the thermistor varies with temperature.
| Temperature / °C | Thermistor resistance / Ω |
|---|---|
| 10 | 5400 |
| 20 | 2400 |
| 30 | 600 |
| 40 | 200 |
At which temperature is the potential difference across the fixed resistor equal to 3.0 V?
Answer Details
The potential difference across the fixed resistor is:
\[ V_{\text{fixed}} = V_{\text{supply}} \times \frac{R_{\text{fixed}}}{R_{\text{therm}} + R_{\text{fixed}}} \]For \( V_{\text{fixed}} = 3.0 \) V:
\[ 3.0 = 6.0 \times \frac{600}{R_{\text{therm}} + 600} \]\[ \frac{R_{\text{therm}} + 600}{600} = \frac{6.0}{3.0} = 2.0 \]\[ R_{\text{therm}} + 600 = 1200 \]\[ R_{\text{therm}} = 600 \text{ } \Omega \]From the table, the thermistor has a resistance of 600 \(\Omega\) at 30 \(^\circ\)C. When the thermistor and fixed resistor are equal, the supply voltage is shared equally.
Question 29 Report
Two sealed containers of equal volume hold the same number of molecules of the same gas. The diagrams represent the particles in each container. The gas at 600 K has longer arrows. What do the longer arrows represent?
Answer Details
The diagram shows two sealed containers of equal volume, each holding the same number of gas molecules. The gas at 300 K has short arrows attached to each particle, while the gas at 600 K has longer arrows. In kinetic particle diagrams, arrows represent the velocity (speed and direction) of the particles.
Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles. Since kinetic energy depends on speed (\(E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\)), a higher temperature means the particles have a greater average speed. The longer arrows at 600 K represent this greater average speed.
The arrows do not represent particle size (particles do not change size with temperature) or spacing (the containers have equal volume and equal numbers of particles). Nor do they indicate more particles, since the question states both containers hold the same number. The longer arrows specifically show that the particles move faster on average at the higher temperature.
Question 30 Report
A parcel hangs from a newton meter inside a lift. The lift is stationary and the reading is 45 N.
What is the mass of the parcel? Take g = 9.0 N/kg.
Answer Details
The newton meter reads 45 N when the lift is stationary, which means the weight of the parcel is 45 N (no acceleration, so the reading equals the true weight). To find mass from weight, rearrange W = m g to give m = W / g. Substituting: m = 45 / 9.0 = 5.0 kg.
A frequent error is to divide by 10 instead of 9.0, which would give 4.5 kg. Another mistake is to multiply weight by g, producing 405 kg, which is clearly unreasonable for a parcel. When a lift is stationary, there is no net acceleration, so the apparent weight shown on the meter equals the actual gravitational weight. If the lift were accelerating, the reading would differ from the true weight, but that is not the case here.
Question 31 Report
A rubber ball and a clay ball of identical mass are thrown at a wall at the same speed. The rubber ball bounces back; the clay ball sticks. Which ball exerts a greater impulse on the wall?
Answer Details
Impulse (equal to the change in momentum) depends on how much the velocity of an object changes, \(\Delta p = m\Delta v\), not just on whether it stops. Both balls have the same mass and hit the wall at the same speed \(u\), but they behave differently afterwards.
The clay ball sticks to the wall, so its final velocity is zero: its change in momentum has magnitude \(mu\). The rubber ball bounces back at (approximately) the same speed, reversing its direction: its final velocity is \(-u\), so its change in momentum has magnitude \(m(u-(-u)) = 2mu\), twice as large as the clay ball's.
The rubber ball exerts the greater impulse on the wall, because reversing an object's momentum requires twice the impulse needed to simply bring the same momentum to zero. It is a common misconception that the ball which stops (the clay ball) must experience the bigger change, but stopping is only "half" of the momentum reversal that the bouncing ball undergoes.
Question 32 Report
Why is alcohol sometimes used instead of mercury in a thermometer designed for very cold climates?
Answer Details
Mercury freezes at approximately -39 °C, so a mercury thermometer cannot measure temperatures below that. In very cold climates, temperatures can drop well below -39 °C.
Alcohol (ethanol) has a freezing point of approximately -114 °C, which is far lower than mercury's. This means an alcohol thermometer remains liquid and functional at temperatures where mercury would solidify and become useless.
While alcohol is indeed less toxic than mercury, that is a safety advantage rather than the reason it is chosen for cold-climate thermometers. Alcohol actually boils at a lower temperature than mercury (about 78 °C vs 357 °C), which limits its upper range. Both mercury and alcohol expand fairly evenly, so even expansion is not the distinguishing factor for cold climates.
Question 33 Report
A metal-cased washing machine is connected to the 230 V mains supply. The earth wire inside the plug becomes disconnected. A fault then causes the live wire to touch the metal case.
What is the danger to a person who touches the case?
Answer Details
With the earth wire disconnected, when the live wire touches the metal case, the case becomes live at 230 V. There is no safe path for the fault current to flow to ground.
When a person touches the case, current flows through their body to the ground, causing a potentially fatal electric shock. The fuse does not blow because the current through a human body (typically a few tens of milliamps) is much less than the fuse rating. Without the earth wire providing a low-resistance alternative path, the person's body is the only available path to earth.
Question 34 Report
Fig. 1.1 shows the waveforms of two sounds, M and N, displayed on the same CRO with identical settings.
Compared to sound M, sound N has the same frequency and the same amplitude. What is the same about the two sounds?
Answer Details
Frequency and amplitude are the two wave properties that determine the perceived pitch and loudness of a sound respectively: frequency determines pitch, and amplitude determines loudness.
Since sound N is stated to have the same frequency and the same amplitude as sound M, both of the properties that determine how a sound is perceived by ear are identical between the two.
So sound N has the same pitch and the same loudness as sound M. Although the two waveforms could in principle still differ in more subtle ways (such as the mixture of overtones present, which affects tone quality or timbre), for the properties directly linked to frequency and amplitude at this level, pitch and loudness are the two quantities that must match.
Question 35 Report
The diagram shows a potential divider circuit. A 9 V battery is connected to two resistors R₁ and R₂ in series. The output voltage is taken across R₂.
What is the output voltage across R₂?
Answer Details
In a potential divider, the output voltage across \( R_2 \) is:
\[ V_{\text{out}} = V_{\text{in}} \times \frac{R_2}{R_1 + R_2} = 9 \times \frac{6}{3 + 6} = 9 \times \frac{6}{9} = 6.0 \text{ V} \]The output voltage is 6.0 V. The larger resistor (\( R_2 = 6 \) k\(\Omega\)) takes a larger share of the total voltage. The remaining 3.0 V is dropped across \( R_1 \). A common error is to reverse the resistors in the formula, which would give 3.0 V instead.
Question 36 Report
The table describes the arrangement and motion of particles in five materials at room temperature.
| Material | Arrangement | Motion |
|---|---|---|
| P | regular, closely packed | vibrate in fixed positions |
| Q | irregular, close together | slide over each other |
| R | random, widely spaced | move fast in all directions |
| S | irregular, close together | slide over each other |
| T | regular, closely packed | vibrate in fixed positions |
Which two materials are most likely both liquids?
Answer Details
In the kinetic particle model, the three states of matter are distinguished by particle arrangement and motion. Solids have particles in a regular, closely packed arrangement, vibrating in fixed positions. Liquids have particles that are irregularly arranged, close together, and able to slide over each other. Gases have particles that are randomly distributed, widely spaced, and moving rapidly in all directions.
Looking at the table, materials P and T both have regular, closely packed particles vibrating in fixed positions - these are solids. Material R has randomly spaced particles moving fast in all directions - this is a gas. Materials Q and S both have irregular, close-together particles that slide over each other - this matches the liquid state exactly.
Therefore the two materials that are both liquids are Q and S.
Question 37 Report
In each row, an object moves in a circle. Which row correctly identifies the force that provides the centripetal force?
| Situation | Force providing centripetal force | |
|---|---|---|
| A | satellite orbiting the Earth | thrust from rocket engines |
| B | car turning on a flat road | friction between the tyres and the road |
| C | electron orbiting a nucleus | gravitational force on the electron |
| D | ball on a string in a horizontal circle | the weight of the ball |
Answer Details
For each situation, the centripetal force must be identified:
The row identifying friction for a car on a flat road is correct.
Question 38 Report
The table shows four safety precautions and the type of radiation each is said to protect against. Which row is correct?
| Safety precaution | Radiation | |
|---|---|---|
| A | wearing oven gloves | ultraviolet |
| B | standing behind a glass screen | gamma rays |
| C | wearing a lead apron | X-rays |
| D | applying sunscreen | infrared |
Answer Details
Checking each precaution against the radiation it should protect against: oven gloves protect against heat (infrared radiation and conduction), not ultraviolet; a glass screen does not meaningfully block gamma rays, which need thick lead or concrete shielding; sunscreen protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation, not infrared.
Wearing a lead apron to protect against X-rays is correct: lead is dense enough to absorb and block X-rays effectively, which is why lead aprons are used in medical and dental X-ray procedures.
The other three rows each pair a real safety precaution with the wrong type of radiation.
Question 39 Report
Fig. 1.1 shows plane wavefronts passing through a gap. The wavefronts beyond the gap are semicircular.
What can be deduced about the gap width?
Answer Details
Diffraction is most pronounced when the gap width is approximately equal to the wavelength of the waves. When plane wavefronts pass through such a gap, they spread out in all directions behind the barrier, producing semicircular wavefronts.
If the gap were much larger than the wavelength, the waves would pass through with very little spreading and remain mostly plane. If the gap were much smaller than the wavelength, very little wave energy would pass through. The semicircular shape of the diffracted wavefronts indicates the gap width is about the same as the wavelength.
Question 40 Report
A person has a weight of 700 N on Earth where g = 10 N/kg. The table shows g on two other bodies.
| Body | g / N/kg |
|---|---|
| Mars | 3.7 |
| Jupiter | 25 |
What is the difference between the person's weight on Jupiter and their weight on Mars?
Answer Details
The key to this problem is recognising that the person's mass stays constant regardless of location. Since weight = mass × gravitational field strength (W = mg), the mass can be found from the Earth data: m = W / g = 700 / 10 = 70 kg.
With the mass known, the weight on each body is calculated using that body's value of g. On Jupiter: W = 70 × 25 = 1750 N. On Mars: W = 70 × 3.7 = 259 N. The difference is 1750 − 259 = 1491 N.
A common error is to subtract the two values of g and then multiply by the Earth weight, which gives a meaningless result. Another pitfall is forgetting to find the mass first and instead trying to scale the Earth weight directly by a ratio of g values for the wrong calculation. Always extract the mass first, then apply each planet's g separately before finding the difference.
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